HAM Toolkit/HAM Toolkit.iso/text/arrl/gen_1.new

Text File | 1994-02-09 | 40KB | 1,223 lines

                              QUESTION POOL
                      ELEMENT 3B (GENERAL CLASS)
                            as released by
                       Question Pool Committee
                        National Conference of
                    Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
                           December 1, 1993

SUBELEMENT G1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

G1A  General control operator frequency privileges; local
control, repeater and harmful interference definitions, third-
party communications

G1A01 (C) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
160-meter band?
A.  1800 - 1900 kHz
B.  1900 - 2000 kHz
C.  1800 - 2000 kHz
D.  1825 - 2000 kHz

G1A02 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A.  3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
B.  3525 - 3775 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
C.  3525 - 3750 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
D.  3525 - 3775 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz

G1A03 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A.  7025 - 7175 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
B.  7025 - 7175 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
C.  7025 - 7150 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
D.  7025 - 7150 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz

G1A04 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
30-meter band?
A.  10100 - 10150 kHz
B.  10100 - 10175 kHz
C.  10125 - 10150 kHz
D.  10125 - 10175 kHz

G1A05 (B) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
20-meter band?
A.  14025 - 14100 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
B.  14025 - 14150 kHz and 14225 - 14350 kHz
C.  14025 - 14125 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
D.  14025 - 14175 kHz and 14250 - 14350 kHz

G1A06 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
15-meter band?
A.  21025 - 21200 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
B.  21025 - 21150 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
C.  21025 - 21150 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
D.  21025 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz

G1A07 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
12-meter band?
A.  24890 - 24990 kHz
B.  24890 - 24975 kHz
C.  24900 - 24990 kHz
D.  24900 - 24975 kHz

G1A08 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
10-meter band?
A.  28000 - 29700 kHz
B.  28025 - 29700 kHz
C.  28100 - 29600 kHz
D.  28125 - 29600 kHz

G1A09 (A) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 160-meter band for phone
emissions?
A.  1800 - 2000 kHz
B.  1800 - 1900 kHz
C.  1825 - 2000 kHz
D.  1825 - 1900 kHz

G1A10 (C) [97.305a]
What are the frequency limits within the 80-meter band in ITU
Region 2 for CW emissions?
A.  3500 - 3750 kHz
B.  3700 - 3750 kHz
C.  3500 - 4000 kHz
D.  3890 - 4000 kHz

G1A11 (D) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 40-meter band in ITU
Region 2 for image emissions?
A.  7225 - 7300 kHz
B.  7000 - 7150 kHz
C.  7100 - 7150 kHz
D.  7150 - 7300 kHz

G1A12 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 30-meter band for RTTY
emissions?
A.  10125 - 10150 kHz
B.  10125 - 10140 kHz
C.  10100 - 10150 kHz
D.  10100 - 10140 kHz

G1A13 (B) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 20-meter band for image
emissions?
A.  14025 - 14300 kHz
B.  14150 - 14350 kHz
C.  14025 - 14350 kHz
D.  14150 - 14300 kHz

G1A14 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 15-meter band for image
emissions?
A.  21250 - 21300 kHz
B.  21150 - 21450 kHz
C.  21200 - 21450 kHz
D.  21100 - 21300 kHz

G1A15 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 12-meter band for phone
emissions?
A.  24890 - 24990 kHz
B.  24890 - 24930 kHz
C.  24930 - 24990 kHz
D.  Phone emissions are not permitted in this band

G1A16 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 10-meter band for phone
emissions?
A.  28000 - 28300 kHz
B.  29000 - 29700 kHz
C.  28300 - 29700 kHz
D.  28000 - 29000 kHz

G1A17 (B) [97.119d]
As a General class control operator at a Novice station, how must
you identify your station when transmitting on 7250 kHz?
A.  With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and
the Novice call sign
B.  With the Novice call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or
any suitable word) and your own call sign
C.  With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any
suitable word) and the Novice call sign
D.  A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even
with a General control operator

G1A18 (D) [97.205a]
Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the
2-meter signal from a Technician class operator?
A.  Under no circumstances
B.  Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special
Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C.  Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications
emergency
D.  Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a
General class license

G1A19 (A) [97.3a35]
What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the
signals of other stations?
A.  Repeater station
B.  Space station
C.  Telecommand station
D.  Relay station

G1A20 (B) [97.3a21]
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously
degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication
service?
A.  Intentional interference
B.  Harmful interference
C.  Adjacent interference
D.  Disruptive interference

G1A21  (C)   [97.115, 97.117]
What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station
to a foreign country for a third party?
A.  Messages for which the amateur operator is paid
B.  Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party
C.  Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
character
D.  No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
parties

G1B  Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good
amateur practice; beacon operation; restricted operation;
retransmitting radio signals

G1B01 (C) [97.15a]
Up to what height above the ground may you install an antenna
structure without needing FCC approval?
A.  50 feet
B.  100 feet
C.  200 feet
D.  300 feet

G1B02 (B) [97.101a]
If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must
you operate your amateur station?
A.  In accordance with general licensee operator principles
B.  In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C.  In accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of
Electrical and Electronics Engineers
D.  In accordance with procedures set forth by the International
Amateur Radio Union

G1B03 (B) [97.203g]
Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
A.  Repeater station
B.  Beacon station
C.  HF station
D.  VHF station

G1B04 (A) [97.113c]
Which of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur
station gathers news information for broadcast purposes?
A.  The information is more quickly transmitted by amateur radio
B.  The information must involve the immediate safety of life of
individuals or the immediate protection of property
C.  The information must be directly related to the event
D.  The information cannot be transmitted by other means

G1B05 (D) [97.113e]
Under what limited circumstances may  music be transmitted by an
amateur station?
A.  When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
B.  When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
C.  When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D.  When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle
retransmission

G1B06 (C) [97.113d]
When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a
message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the
communication?
A.  When transmitting above 450 MHz
B.  During contests
C.  Never
D.  During a declared communications emergency

G1B07 (B) [97.113d]
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or
procedural signals in the amateur service?
A.  There are no restrictions
B.  They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a
message
C.  They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a
message to FCC monitoring stations
D.  Only "10-codes" are permitted

G1B08 (A) [97.113d]
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur
communications?
A.  Never
B.  During contests
C.  During nationally declared emergencies
D.  On frequencies above 2.3 GHz

G1B09 (A) [97.113d]
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international
amateur communications?
A.  Never
B.  During contests
C.  During internationally declared emergencies
D.  On frequencies above 2.3 GHz

G1B10 (D) [97.113d]
Which of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by
the FCC Rules?
A.  The playing of music
B.  The use of obscene or indecent words
C.  False or deceptive messages or signals
D.  Retransmission of space shuttle communications

G1B11 (C) [97.113d/e]
What should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music
or signals from a non-amateur station?
A.  Turn up the volume of your transceiver
B.  Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal
strength
C.  Turn down the volume of background audio
D.  Adjust your transceiver noise blanker

G1C  Transmitter power standards; type acceptance of external
RF-power amplifiers; standards for type acceptance of external
RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission standards

G1C01 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 3690 kHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  1000 watts PEP output
C.  1500 watts PEP output
D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C02 (C) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 7080 kHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  1000 watts PEP output
C.  1500 watts PEP output
D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C03 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 10.140 MHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  1000 watts PEP output
C.  1500 watts PEP output
D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C04 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 21.150 MHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  1000 watts PEP output
C.  1500 watts PEP output
D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C05 (C) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 24.950 MHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  1000 watts PEP output
C.  1500 watts PEP output
D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C06 (D) [97.315a]
External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what
frequency may require FCC type acceptance?
A.  28 MHz
B.  35 MHz
C.  50 MHz
D.  144 MHz

G1C07 (B) [97.315a]
Without a grant of FCC type acceptance, how many external RF
amplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz
may you build or modify in one calendar year?
A.  None
B.  1
C.  5
D.  10

G1C08 (B) [97.317c6i]
Which of the following standards must be met if FCC type
acceptance of an external RF amplifier is required?
A.  The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to
more than ten times the input power
B.  The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed
output power when driven with less than 50 watts
C.  The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than
ten minutes without a time delay circuit
D.  The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur
operator

G1C09 (D) [97.317b/c]
Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power
amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A.  The capability of being modified by the operator for use
outside the amateur bands
B.  The capability of achieving full output power when driven
with less than 50 watts
C.  The capability of achieving full output power on amateur
frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz
D.  The capability of being switched by the operator to all
amateur frequencies below 24 MHz

G1C10 (A) [97.307f3]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions
below 28 MHz?
A.  300 bauds
B.  1200 bauds
C.  19.6 kilobauds
D.  56 kilobauds

G1C11 (D) [97.307f3]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions
below 28 MHz?
A.  56 kilobauds
B.  19.6 kilobauds
C.  1200 bauds
D.  300 bauds

G1D  Examination element preparation; examination
administration; temporary station identification

G1D01 (B) [97.507a2]
What telegraphy examination elements may you prepare if you hold
a General class license?
A.  None
B.  Element 1A only
C.  Element 1B only
D.  Elements 1A and 1B

G1D02 (C) [97.507a2&3]
What written examination elements may you prepare if you hold a
General class license?
A.  None
B.  Element 2 only
C.  Elements 2 and 3A
D.  Elements 2, 3A and 3B

G1D03 (C) [97.511b1]
What license examinations may you administer if you hold a
General class license?
A.  None
B.  Novice only
C.  Novice and Technician
D.  Novice, Technician and General

G1D04 (B) [97.501e]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Novice license?
A.  Element 2 only
B.  Elements 1A and 2
C.  Elements 2 and 3A
D.  Elements 1A, 2 and 3A

G1D05 (C) [97.501d]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Technician license?
A.  Element 2 only
B.  Elements 1A and 2
C.  Elements 2 and 3A
D.  Elements 1A, 2 and 3A

G1D06 (D) [97.301e/501d]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Technician license with HF privileges?
A.  Element 2 only
B.  Elements 1A and 2
C.  Elements 2 and 3A
D.  Elements 1A, 2 and 3A

G1D07 (A) [97.511a/b]
What are the requirements for administering Novice examinations?
A.  Three VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
present
B.  Two VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
present
C.  Two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one
need be VEC accredited
D.  Any two General class or higher VEs must be present

G1D08 (D) [97.507a]
When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner
(VE) for a Novice license examination?
A.  Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an
examination
B.  Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination (CSCE) for General class
C.  Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations
for the Novice license, or obtained them from a qualified
supplier
D.  Once you have received both your FCC-issued General class or
higher license in the mail and VEC accreditation

G1D09 (B) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
you identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?
A.  You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
B.  You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/",
followed by the identifier "AG"
C.  You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license
arrives
D.  No special form of identification is needed

G1D10 (C) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
you identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on
14.325 MHz?
A.  No special form of identification is needed
B.  You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license
arrives
C.  You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word
that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"
D.  You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE

G1D11 (A) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when
must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign?
A.  Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges
B.  Whenever you operate
C.  Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D.  A special identifier is not required as long as your General
class license application has been filed with the FCC

SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

G2A  Phone, RTTY, repeater, VOX and full break-in CW

G2A01 (A)
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation?
A.  Upper
B.  Lower
C.  Amplitude compandored
D.  Double

G2A02 (B)
Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation?
A.  Upper
B.  Lower
C.  Amplitude compandored
D.  Double

G2A03 (A)
In what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
take place?
A.  3610 - 3630 kHz
B.  3500 - 3525 kHz
C.  3700 - 3750 kHz
D.  3775 - 3825 kHz

G2A04 (B)
In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
take place?
A.  14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B.  14.075 - 14.100 MHz
C.  14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D.  14.275 - 14.350 MHz

G2A05 (C)
What is the Baudot code?
A.  A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
B.  A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
space bits
C.  A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D.  A 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits

G2A06 (A)
What is ASCII?
A.  A 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
B.  A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
space bits
C.  A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D.  A 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two
space bits

G2A07 (B)
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the
amateur HF bands?
A.  85 Hz
B.  170 Hz
C.  425 Hz
D.  850 Hz

G2A08 (B)
What are the two major AMTOR operating modes?
A.  Mode AM and Mode TR
B.  Mode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC)
C.  Mode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC)
D.  Mode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN

G2A09 (A)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
10-meter station in repeater operation?
A.  100 kHz
B.  600 kHz
C.  1.6 MHz
D.  170 Hz

G2A10 (B)
What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to
automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its
microphone?
A.  VXO
B.  VOX
C.  VCO
D.  VFO

G2A11 (D)
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy?
A.  Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B.  Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand
keys
C.  An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before
and after every transmission
D.  Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses

G2B  Operating courtesy, antenna orientation and HF operations,
including logging practices; ITU Regions

G2B01 (D)
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should
you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just
before the net begins?
A.  Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
B.  Increase your power output so that net participants will be
able to hear you over the existing activity
C.  Cancel the net for that day
D.  Conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the
regular net frequency

G2B02 (A)
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another
station are using, what should you do?
A.  As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency
B.  Increase your power output to ensure that all net
participants can hear you
C.  Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no
other stations may use it
D.  Turn off your radio

G2B03 (D)
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice
increasing interference from other activity on the same
frequency, what should you do?
A.  Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you
were there first
B.  Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary
Coordinator
C.  Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference
D.  Move your contact to another frequency

G2B04 (B)
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
to minimize interference?
A.  5 to 50 Hz
B.  150 to 500 Hz
C.  1 to 3 kHz
D.  3 to 6 kHz

G2B05 (B)
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency,
what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress
should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize
interference?
A.  150 to 500 Hz
B.  Approximately 3 kHz
C.  Approximately 6 kHz
D.  Approximately 10 kHz

G2B06 (B)
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
(center to center) to minimize interference?
A.  60 Hz
B.  250 to 500 Hz
C.  Approximately 3 kHz
D.  Approximately 6 kHz

G2B07 (B)
What is an azimuthal map?
A.  A map projection centered on the North Pole
B.  A map projection centered on a particular location, used to
determine the shortest path between points on the surface of the
earth
C.  A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
D.  A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an
amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with
each orbit

G2B08 (A)
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a
directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
A.  Azimuthal
B.  Mercator
C.  Polar projection
D.  Topographical

G2B09 (C)
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to
another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its
short-path heading?
A.  45 degrees
B.  90 degrees
C.  180 degrees
D.  270 degrees

G2B10 (A)
What is a band plan?
A.  A guideline for using different operating modes within an
amateur band
B.  A guideline for deviating from FCC amateur frequency band
allocations
C.  A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band
published by the FCC
D.  A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during
a contest

G2B11 (B)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the
continental United States?
A.  Region 1
B.  Region 2
C.  Region 3
D.  Region 4

G2C  Emergencies, including drills, communications and amateur
auxiliary to FOB

G2C01 (C)
What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract
attention, make known its condition and location, and obtain
assistance?
A.  Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized
emergency channels
B.  Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally
recognized emergency channels
C.  Any means of radiocommunication
D.  Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station
is licensed

G2C02 (A)
During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make
transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and
assist relief operations?
A.  When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or
disrupted
B.  Only when the local RACES net is activated
C.  Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a
disaster
D.  When normal communication systems are working but are not
convenient

G2C03 (A)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what
may the FCC do?
A.  Declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B.  Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster
communications
C.  Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at
once
D.  Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area

G2C04 (D)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area, what
would the FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of
communication emergency?
A.  Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of
amateur emergency communications workers
B.  A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your
equipment for disaster communications
C.  Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial
power systems
D.  Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by
stations during the emergency

G2C05 (D)
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be
observed by a station in distress?
A.  200 watts PEP
B.  1500 watts PEP
C.  1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts
PEP during the night
D.  There are no limitations during an emergency

G2C06 (C)
During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to
obtain assistance?
A.  Only frequencies in the 80-meter band
B.  Only frequencies in the 40-meter band
C.  Any frequency
D.  Any United Nations approved frequency

G2C07 (B)
If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
station in distress break in, what should you do?
A.  Continue your communication because you were on frequency
first
B.  Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its
location and what assistance may be needed
C.  Change to a different frequency so the station in distress
may have a clear channel to call for assistance
D.  Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in
distress have emergency rights to the frequency

G2C08 (A)
Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
(RACES) participate in training tests and drills?
A.  To practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil
defense organization they serve
B.  To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings
C.  To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and
drills
D.  To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet
in an emergency

G2C09 (C)
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in
a foreign country?
A.  Messages of any type
B.  Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in
nature
C.  Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of
relative unimportance
D.  Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a
third-party communications agreement with the US

G2C10 (A)
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations
Bureau?
A.  Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the
airwaves for rules violations
B.  Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C.  Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for
amateur VHF repeaters
D.  Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help
civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G2C11 (B)
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's
Field Operations Bureau?
A.  To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing
examinations
B.  To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the
rules
C.  To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum
usage
D.  To provide emergency and public safety communications

SUBELEMENT G3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

G3A  Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation

G3A01 (A)
What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications
during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A.  Try a higher frequency
B.  Try the other sideband
C.  Try a different antenna polarization
D.  Try a different frequency shift

G3A02 (B)
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the
daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A.  It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude
paths
B.  It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on
higher frequencies
C.  It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
D.  None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected

G3A03 (C)
How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray
radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on
the earth?
A.  The effect is instantaneous
B.  1.5 seconds
C.  8 minutes
D.  20 to 40 hours

G3A04 (B)
What is solar flux?
A.  The density of the sun's magnetic field
B.  The radio energy emitted by the sun
C.  The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the
earth
D.  A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side
toward the sun

G3A05 (D)
What is the solar-flux index?
A.  A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
B.  A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with
results from the last six months
C.  Another name for the American sunspot number
D.  A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific
frequency

G3A06 (D)
What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A.  A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B.  A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
C.  Ripples in the ionosphere
D.  A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short
period of time

G3A07 (A)
At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to
geomagnetic disturbances?
A.  Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
B.  Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude
C.  Those near the equator
D.  All paths are affected equally

G3A08 (B)
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave
propagation?
A.  Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B.  Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C.  Improved ground-wave propagation
D.  Improved chances of UHF ducting

G3A09  (A)
What influences all radio communication beyond ground-wave or
line-of-sight ranges?
A.  Solar activity
B.  Lunar tidal effects
C.  The F1 region of the ionosphere
D.  The F2 region of the ionosphere

G3A10 (B)
Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
A.  Subaudible- and audio-frequency emissions
B.  Electromagnetic and particle emissions
C.  Polar-region and equatorial emissions
D.  Infrared and gamma-ray emissions

G3A11 (C)
When sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected?
A.  High-frequency radio signals are absorbed
B.  Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for
long-distance communication
C.  Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for
long-distance communication
D.  High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

G3B  Maximum usable frequency, propagation "hops"

G3B01 (B)
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to
France is 22 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
successful contact?
A.  10 meters
B.  15 meters
C.  20 meters
D.  40 Meters

G3B02 (C)
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to Germany
is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
successful contact?
A.  80 meters
B.  40 meters
C.  20 meters
D.   2 meters

G3B03 (C)
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high and HF radio-wave
propagation is generally good for several days, a similar
condition can usually be expected how many days later?
A.  7
B.  14
C.  28
D.  90

G3B04 (A)
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your
station and western Europe?
A.  Listen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency
B.  Listen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency
C.  Listen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency
D.  Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz

G3B05 (A)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the
maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the
ionosphere?
A.  They are bent back to the earth
B.  They pass through the ionosphere
C.  They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D.  They are changed to a frequency above the MUF

G3B06 (C)
Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you
determine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?
A.  28.2 MHz
B.  21.1 MHz
C.  14.1 MHz
D.  14.2 MHz

G3B07 (D)
During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the
least reliable for long-distance communication?
A.  Frequencies below 3.5 MHz
B.  Frequencies near 3.5 MHz
C.  Frequencies on or above 10 MHz
D.  Frequencies above 20 MHz

G3B08 (D)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually
support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A.  At the summer solstice
B.  Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C.  Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D.  At any point in the solar cycle

G3B09 (A)
What is one characteristic of gray-line propagation?
A.  It is very efficient
B.  It improves local communications
C.  It is very poor
D.  It increases D-region absorption

G3B10 (C)
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A.  180 miles
B.  1200 miles
C.  2500 miles
D.  None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation

G3B11 (B)
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A.  180 miles
B.  1200 miles
C.  2500 miles
D.  None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation

G3C  Height of ionospheric regions, critical angle and frequency,
HF scatter

G3C01 (B)
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region?
A.  45 miles
B.  70 miles
C.  200 miles
D.  1200 miles

G3C02 (A)
When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at
your location?
A.  At noon during the summer
B.  At midnight during the summer
C.  At dusk in the spring and fall
D.  At noon during the winter

G3C03 (C)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance
radio-wave propagation?
A.  Because it exists only at night
B.  Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
C.  Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D.  Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other
ionospheric regions

G3C04 (D)
What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation?
A.  The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the
earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B.  The compass direction of a distant station
C.  The compass direction opposite that of a distant station
D.  The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to
the earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G3C05 (C)
What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands
tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during
daylight hours?
A.  Because of a lack of activity
B.  Because of auroral propagation
C.  Because of D-region absorption
D.  Because of magnetic flux

G3C06 (B)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A.  High intelligibility
B.  A wavering sound
C.  Reversed modulation
D.  Reversed sidebands

G3C07 (D)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A.  Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
B.  Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the
signal
C.  The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
D.  Energy scattered into the skip zone through several
radio-wave paths

G3C08 (A)
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
A.  Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the
skip zone
B.  Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
C.  Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal
energy
D.  The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal
energy

G3C09 (B)
What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be
detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but
too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A.  Ground wave
B.  Scatter
C.  Sporadic-E skip
D.  Short-path skip

G3C10 (D)
When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?
A.  When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region
absorption is high
B.  At night
C.  When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
D.  When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable
frequency (MUF)

G3C11 (A)
What type of signal fading occurs when two or more parts of a
radio wave follow different paths?
A.  Multipath interference
B.  Multimode interference
C.  Selective Interference
D.  Ionospheric interference

SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 exam questions - 5
groups]

G4A  Two-tone test; electronic TR switch, amplifier
neutralization

G4A01 (C)
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity
of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output
on an oscilloscope?
A.  Normal speech
B.  An audio-frequency sine wave
C.  Two audio-frequency sine waves
D.  An audio-frequency square wave

G4A02 (C)
When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband
transmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone
input and on what kind of instrument is the output observed?
A.  Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
observed on an oscilloscope
B.  Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
observed on a distortion analyzer
C.  Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
is observed on an oscilloscope
D.  Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
is observed on a distortion analyzer

G4A03 (D)
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A.  20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used
B.  1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
C.  Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
D.  Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically
related

G4A04 (D)
What measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone
transmitter's amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an
oscilloscope?
A.  Its percent of frequency modulation
B.  Its percent of carrier phase shift
C.  Its frequency deviation
D.  Its linearity

G4A05 (A)
At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an
electronic TR switch normally appear?
A.  Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
B.  Between the low-pass filter and antenna
C.  At the antenna feed point
D.  At the power-supply feed point

G4A06 (C)
Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one?
A.  It allows greater receiver sensitivity
B.  Its circuitry is simpler
C.  It has a higher operating speed
D.  It allows cleaner output signals

G4A07 (A)
As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current
meter indicates the best neutralization?
A.  A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
B.  A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
C.  Minimum grid current
D.  Maximum grid current

G4A08 (D)
Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers?
A.  To reduce the limits of loaded Q
B.  To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage
C.  To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer
D.  To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
capacitance

G4A09 (C)
In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is
used?
A.  5%
B.  10%
C.  Negative
D.  Positive

G4A10 (B)
What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
A.  It controls differential gain
B.  It cancels the effects of positive feedback
C.  It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
D.  It reduces incidental grid modulation

G4A11 (B)
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of
a transmitter?
A.  To limit the modulation index
B.  To eliminate self oscillations
C.  To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D.  To keep the carrier on frequency